Ive a bit sceptical of the 'More bvattery Amps give more torque' theory because as V and I are linked then really both have to increase in parallel?
Im guessing that overvolting a 24v motor will take more volts AND amps, whilst going directly for a 36v motor will (having a higher resistance) use more volts but not necessarily more amps
Anyway then I thought maybe V=IR doesnt strictly apply to motors, e.g how does a motor use more amps at stall/low speed? even though the resitance of the coil is fixed, amp usage does change!!!
Question - Does the 'back EMF' add to resistance???